John 7
11 The Jews were looking for him at the feast and saying, “Where is he?” 12 And there was considerable murmuring about him in the crowds. Some said, “He is a good man,” while others said, “No; on the contrary, he misleads the crowd.” 13 Still, no one spoke openly about him because they were afraid of the Jews.
Readers have long noticed that the Gospel of John speaks negatively of "the Jews" in general. Here, we see that the author makes a distinction between "the Jews" and "the crowds." In our normal terminology, the crowds were no doubt Jews themselves since they had gathered in Jerusalem for the Feast of Tabernacles (7:2), known to Jews today as Succoth. Later in the chapter, "the Jews" who have seeking to kill Jesus (7:1) are amazed at Jesus' teaching because he had not studied (7:15). Meanwhile "the crowds" (7:20) are bewildered when Jesus asks "Why are you trying to kill me?” and they answer: “You are possessed! Who is trying to kill you?”
The longer question: Assuming John's distinction between the crowds and the Jews in intentional, how should we understand it? When he speaks of "the Jews" elsewhere, does he mean this in a different sense than "the general Jewish population?" Should we understand "the Jews" in John's gospel to mean something more like "Jesus' religious opponents?"
Note to moderators: this is a different question from the more general "Who are the Jews in John's Gospel" as it deals with a specific text and asks about "the crowds" as well as "the Jews."